Could the rise in deaths we recorded from February 2020 NOT have been due to the virus but due to the way frail elderly & poor persons were TREATED with morphine, Remdesivir, midazolam, ventilation?

Thus could it be that virus was around us for 2 years prior yet powers at be, for their dark reasons, in February 2020 'detected' it with fraud PCR to them sedate & ventilate, causing massive deaths?

Did we and the right public health officials disregard all the history about coronavirus and respiratory infections and illness as it pertained to COVID-19? Why?

I am trying to argue that the rise in deaths we saw post February 2020 is not due to novel new virus circulating, and yes, our frail elderly were dying principally, bit that the virus was always circulating, and we had massive background natural immunity already, cross-reactive etc. It was not the first time our immune systems had seen this pathogen GLOBALLY. What changed was the use of the PCR test to now ‘detect’ it, but it was always there. That was a fraud step as part of this great disaster. So now we are detecting it and then medicalizing everyone and place our elderly parents and frail ‘IMMUNO-SENESCENCE’ grand parents into nursing homes where the COVID protocol was implemented in mass e.g.

1)admit

2)declare COVID positive with flawed over-cycled PCR false positive test (beyond cycle count thresholds of 24 to 25 that then detects viral dust and fragments and NOT infectious pathological virus), so now they are COVIDized

3)sedate with diamorphine and midazolam

4)restrain and intubate then ventilate

5) administer the deadly standard of care ‘REMDESIVIR; that is liver and kidney toxic

6)then the persons dies and the hospitals collect $500,000 from the government

In other words, were the spikes in deaths NOT due to COVID virus, but more so due to the handling of the patient, how they were treated in the medical system?